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Questions

Question 1

What is the definition of shock as a state of inadequate cellular perfusion?

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Question 2

According to the text, what is the normal range for mean arterial pressure (MAP)?

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Question 3

In which stage of shock does the body respond to hypotension with stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system, while overt clinical manifestations are not yet apparent?

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Question 4

What is the key physiological event that characterizes the progressive stage of shock?

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Question 5

What is considered a characteristic vital sign finding in the refractory stage of shock?

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Question 6

Which of the following conditions is an example of absolute hypovolemia?

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Question 7

What is a potential complication of administering multiple units of cold or room-temperature blood during hemorrhagic shock treatment?

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Question 8

Citrate toxicity, a complication of multiple blood transfusions, is caused by citrate binding to which electrolyte in the patient's system?

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Question 9

What is the primary cause of septic shock?

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Question 10

Which criterion is part of the quick Sequential Organ Failure Assessment (qSOFA) used to screen for sepsis?

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Question 11

A patient with suspected sepsis has a respiratory rate of 24 breaths/minute, a systolic blood pressure of 95 mmHg, and is confused. What is this patient's qSOFA score?

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Question 12

What laboratory value is considered the definitive test for sepsis?

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Question 13

A patient in septic shock has a lactate level greater than what value, which is associated with high mortality?

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Question 14

What are the hallmark findings of neurogenic shock?

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Question 15

What is the primary pathophysiological cause of hypotension in neurogenic shock?

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Question 16

Spinal shock is differentiated from neurogenic shock primarily by which finding?

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Question 17

What is the recommended first-line treatment to restore blood pressure in a patient with neurogenic shock?

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Question 18

What is the term for the study of the movement of blood as it flows through cells, tissues, and organs?

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Question 19

What is the primary purpose of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS) activation during the compensatory stage of shock?

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Question 20

Which condition is a potential outcome when the inflammatory response extends beyond the area of injury throughout the body for a prolonged period, as seen in sepsis?

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Question 21

What is the minimum hourly urine output that reflects adequate kidney perfusion?

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Question 22

What is the first-line vasopressor recommended for use in septic shock according to the Surviving Sepsis Campaign guidelines mentioned in the text?

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Question 23

A patient with a spinal cord injury above which thoracic vertebra is at high risk for developing neurogenic shock?

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Question 24

What term describes the intrinsic thermoregulatory failure seen in patients with neurogenic shock, leading to fluctuations between hypothermia and hyperthermia?

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Question 25

What is the primary intervention for preventing the development of secondary infections like sepsis, as emphasized in the text?

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Question 26

During the compensatory stage of shock, the body's response to decreased blood flow to the kidneys involves the release of which substance?

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Question 27

What is the normal cardiac output (CO) in an adult?

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Question 28

In a patient with septic shock, an elevated C-reactive protein (CRP) level is indicative of what process?

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Question 29

What is the primary reason for bradycardia in a patient with neurogenic shock?

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Question 30

The massive fluid shift from the vascular space into the interstitial space during the progressive stage of shock is also known as what?

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Question 31

Which type of shock is most often a result of hypovolemic and septic shock?

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Question 32

What is the recommended target MAP for a patient in neurogenic shock to ensure adequate perfusion?

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Question 33

For each hour that treatment is delayed in a patient with sepsis, what is the associated increase in mortality?

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Question 34

Which of the following is considered an invasive method of hemodynamic monitoring?

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Question 35

Which patient is identified as being at the highest risk for the development of septic shock?

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Question 36

What is the primary characteristic of 'warm shock' in the early stages of sepsis?

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Question 37

What is the normal range for central venous pressure (CVP)?

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Question 38

In the context of hypovolemic shock, what type of IV fluid is Ringer's lactate?

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Question 39

A patient in hemorrhagic shock receives multiple blood transfusions. The nurse should be especially concerned about the development of citrate toxicity and monitor for low levels of which electrolyte?

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Question 40

Which stage of shock is characterized by a noticeable drop in blood pressure that stimulates baroreceptors in the carotid and aortic bodies?

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Question 41

What is the primary cause of relative hypovolemia?

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Question 42

What is the most accurate indicator of recovery from septic shock, according to the provided text?

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Question 43

In the progressive stage of shock, hypoperfusion of the liver results in which clinical sign?

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Question 44

Which drug is used to treat the bradycardia specifically associated with neurogenic shock?

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Question 45

A laboratory result of 'Greater than 2.0 microg/L' for which marker would support a suspicion of sepsis?

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Question 46

What is a key component of the 'one-hour bundle' recommended by the Surviving Sepsis Campaign?

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Question 47

Which change in the progressive stage of shock is a result of impaired oxygen and carbon dioxide diffusion in the lungs?

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Question 48

What type of drug, such as digoxin or dobutamine, is used in neurogenic shock to increase the force of cardiac contractions?

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Question 49

What is the primary reason that patients who have undergone abdominal surgery or received general anesthesia are at increased risk for paralytic ileus?

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Question 50

A patient is in the progressive stage of shock. Which of the following vital sign changes would be expected?

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