Reading 46: Basics of Derivative Pricing and Valuation
50 questions available
Key Points
- Arbitrage is a riskless profit with zero net investment.
- Law of one price: Identical payoffs imply identical current prices.
- Derivatives are priced using a risk-free hedge (replication).
- Risk-neutral pricing discounts payoffs at the risk-free rate.
Key Points
- Forward Price is fixed; Forward Value fluctuates.
- Value at initiation is zero.
- Value at time t: Vt = St - PV(F0).
- Costs increase forward price; benefits decrease it.
- Futures prices differ from forwards if rates are correlated with prices.
Key Points
- Swaps are equivalent to a series of forward contracts.
- Swap price (fixed rate) makes initial value zero.
- Value changes with interest rate expectations.
- FRAs hedge interest rate risk.
Key Points
- Moneyness: Relationship between S and X.
- Option Premium = Exercise Value + Time Value.
- Put-Call Parity: c + PV(X) = S + p.
- Binomial Model uses risk-neutral probabilities.
- American options may be more valuable than European if early exercise offers benefits (e.g., dividends for calls, deep ITM for puts).
Questions
Which of the following best describes the concept of arbitrage?
View answer and explanationIn the context of derivative pricing, what does the term 'replication' refer to?
View answer and explanationRisk-neutral pricing determines the value of a derivative by discounting expected future cash flows at which rate?
View answer and explanationAt the initiation of a forward contract, which of the following statements regarding its value and price is correct?
View answer and explanationCalculate the no-arbitrage forward price for a 1-year contract on an asset with a spot price of 100 EUR, assuming a risk-free rate of 5 percent and no holding costs or benefits.
View answer and explanationAn investor holds a long position in a forward contract with a forward price of 50. At expiration, the spot price of the underlying asset is 55. What is the payoff to the investor?
View answer and explanationA forward contract was initiated with a forward price of 105. Six months later, the spot price of the asset is 110, and the risk-free rate is 4 percent. What is the value of the long forward position? (Assume T=1 at initiation, so 0.5 years remain).
View answer and explanationHow do monetary benefits, such as dividends, affect the no-arbitrage forward price of an asset?
View answer and explanationWhat is the 'convenience yield' of an asset?
View answer and explanationCalculate the no-arbitrage futures price for a 1-year contract on an asset with a spot price of 200, given a risk-free rate of 3 percent and a net cost of carry of -5 (negative).
View answer and explanationIf a forward contract on an asset has a positive net cost of carry (benefits exceed costs), the forward price will be:
View answer and explanationWhat is the primary difference between a Forward Rate Agreement (FRA) and a standard forward contract?
View answer and explanationTo create a synthetic long position in an FRA (to hedge against rising rates), a bank could:
View answer and explanationWhy might the price of a futures contract differ from the price of an otherwise identical forward contract?
View answer and explanationIf interest rates and futures prices are positively correlated, the futures price will generally be:
View answer and explanationAn interest rate swap is economically equivalent to:
View answer and explanationAt the initiation of a plain vanilla interest rate swap, the value of the swap is:
View answer and explanationA 'call' option is said to be 'in-the-money' when:
View answer and explanationCalculate the exercise value (intrinsic value) of a put option with a strike price of 50 when the underlying stock is trading at 42.
View answer and explanationAn option has a premium of 5. Its exercise value is 3. What is its time value?
View answer and explanationHow does an increase in the volatility of the underlying asset affect the value of call and put options?
View answer and explanationWhich of the following factors is inversely related to the value of a call option (i.e., higher factor value leads to lower call value)?
View answer and explanationWhich of the following describes the relationship between the risk-free rate and the value of a put option?
View answer and explanationAccording to put-call parity for European options, a fiduciary call (Call + Risk-free bond) has the same payoff as which portfolio?
View answer and explanationGiven the following: Stock Price = 52, Put Price = 1.50, Strike Price = 50, Risk-free Rate = 5 percent, Time = 0.25 years. Calculate the no-arbitrage price of the Call option using put-call parity.
View answer and explanationUsing put-call parity, how can a synthetic share of stock be created?
View answer and explanationPut-Call-Forward parity is derived by substituting which of the following into the standard put-call parity equation?
View answer and explanationIn the binomial model, the risk-neutral probability of an up-move depends on:
View answer and explanationCalculate the value of a 1-year call option using a one-period binomial model. Current Stock = 30. Up factor = 1.15. Down factor = 0.87. Risk-free rate = 7 percent. Strike = 30.
View answer and explanationUnder what condition would an American call option on a stock be worth more than an otherwise identical European call option?
View answer and explanationWhy might an American put option be exercised early?
View answer and explanationIf a portfolio has a guaranteed payoff of 105 in one year and costs 100 today, and the risk-free rate is 3 percent, what action should an arbitrageur take?
View answer and explanationA 'fiduciary call' consists of:
View answer and explanationFor an asset with storage costs, the forward price is calculated as:
View answer and explanationA 'synthetic' European put option can be created by:
View answer and explanationWhich of the following best describes the 'payoff' of a protective put at expiration?
View answer and explanationIn a one-period binomial model, the risk-neutral probability of a down move is:
View answer and explanationIf a call option is 'at-the-money', its time value is:
View answer and explanationA 'synthetic' bond (risk-free asset) can be constructed using options and stock by:
View answer and explanationIf the forward price is F0(T) = 100 and the contract expires in T=1 year, what is the value of the forward contract to the long party when the spot price is 102 just before expiration (essentially t=T)?
View answer and explanationAn off-market forward contract is one where:
View answer and explanationWhich of the following portfolios replicates a long position in a Forward Rate Agreement (receiving floating, paying fixed)?
View answer and explanationIf the convenience yield of a commodity is extremely high, the market is likely in:
View answer and explanationCalculate the price of a 1-year swap where the present value of expected floating payments is 2.0 million and the notional principal is 100 million. The discount factor for 1 year is 0.95.
View answer and explanationA call option is worth more 'alive than dead' (uncercised) usually because:
View answer and explanationWhich factor would decrease the value of a call option?
View answer and explanationIn the binomial model, if the risk-free rate increases while U and D remain constant, the risk-neutral probability of an up-move (pi_U):
View answer and explanationValue of a forward contract at expiration (Time T) is:
View answer and explanationHow is the settlement price of a futures contract typically determined?
View answer and explanationWhat is the lower bound of a European call option price on a non-dividend paying stock?
View answer and explanation