Why is it important for a nurse to monitor intake and output ratios in elderly or surgical patients taking anticholinergics?

Correct answer: They may cause urinary retention.

Explanation

This question assesses the understanding of a specific nursing assessment and the underlying reason for it in at-risk populations.

Other questions

Question 1

Which anticholinergic agent is specifically listed for the management of Parkinson's disease?

Question 2

What is the primary mechanism of action for anticholinergic agents?

Question 3

The use of anticholinergics is contraindicated in patients with which of the following eye conditions?

Question 4

Which substance may decrease the absorption of orally administered anticholinergics?

Question 5

How long before travel should a scopolamine transdermal patch be applied?

Question 6

What advice should be given to a patient taking anticholinergics who experiences dry mouth?

Question 7

Which two anticholinergic agents are listed for use as ophthalmic mydriatics?

Question 8

Which patient populations are noted to be more susceptible to the adverse effects of anticholinergics?

Question 9

Additive anticholinergic effects, such as dry mouth and blurred vision, can occur when these agents are used with which other class of drugs?

Question 10

Which of the following is a desired outcome for a patient taking an anticholinergic for motion sickness?

Question 11

For which conditions is ipratropium primarily used as an anticholinergic agent?

Question 12

Atropine, glycopyrrolate, propantheline, and scopolamine are specifically classified as antimuscarinic because they inhibit acetylcholine at which sites?

Question 13

Anticholinergics are contraindicated in patients with tachycardia that is due to thyrotoxicosis or what other condition?

Question 14

When should oral doses of glycopyrrolate, propantheline, or scopolamine be administered in relation to meals?

Question 15

What visual side effect should a patient be warned about when using ophthalmic anticholinergic preparations?

Question 16

Which anticholinergic agent is indicated for the treatment of bradyarrhythmias?

Question 17

How might anticholinergics affect the gastrointestinal (GI) absorption of other drugs?

Question 18

During IV drug therapy with anticholinergics, what should a nurse monitor frequently?

Question 19

Impaired oral mucous membrane is listed as a potential nursing diagnosis related to which aspect of anticholinergic therapy?

Question 20

A successful outcome for a patient with Parkinson's disease taking an anticholinergic would be the resolution of what?

Question 21

Oxybutynin and tolterodine are anticholinergic agents used for what purpose?

Question 22

Besides hypersensitivity and narrow-angle glaucoma, anticholinergics are also contraindicated in patients with which neuromuscular disorder?

Question 23

Caution should be exercised when using anticholinergics in patients with chronic renal, hepatic, cardiac, or which other organ system disease?

Question 24

Co-administration of anticholinergics with antidepressants, quinidine, and disopyramide can lead to what type of effects?

Question 26

Due to the risk of drowsiness, patients taking anticholinergics should be cautioned to avoid what activity?

Question 27

Propantheline and glycopyrrolate are used to decrease gastric secretory activity and increase the tone of what structure?

Question 28

The term 'antimuscarinic' refers to the inhibition of acetylcholine's action at what specific type of nerve fiber?

Question 29

Anticholinergics are contraindicated in patients with tachycardia that is due to thyrotoxicosis or cardiac insufficiency. What other condition is also a contraindication?

Question 30

Caution is advised when prescribing anticholinergics to patients at risk for obstruction of which body system?

Question 31

A nurse should assess a patient on anticholinergics for abdominal distention and auscultate for bowel sounds because of the risk of what side effect?

Question 32

One of the desired outcomes of anticholinergic therapy, particularly when used for ophthalmic purposes, is what change in the pupils?

Question 33

Scopolamine is an anticholinergic used to treat nausea and vomiting related to vertigo and what other condition?

Question 34

What recommendation is given to patients using ophthalmic anticholinergic preparations to manage photosensitivity?

Question 35

Anticholinergic drugs inhibit GI motility, which can lead to an increase in what factor for other orally administered drugs?

Question 36

Constipation is listed as a potential nursing diagnosis for patients taking anticholinergics and is categorized under what?

Question 37

For a patient receiving Atropine for bradycardia, what is the primary desired outcome related to heart rate?

Question 38

What is the general physiological effect of anticholinergics by competitively inhibiting acetylcholine?

Question 39

When assessing a patient on IV anticholinergic therapy, a nurse should report any significant increase in ventricular ectopy or what other cardiac symptom?

Question 40

The transdermal patch form of which anticholinergic is used for preventing motion sickness?

Question 41

Cautionary use of anticholinergics is recommended for patients with urinary tract pathology due to the potential for what adverse effect?

Question 42

Which of the following is NOT an expected additive anticholinergic effect when these drugs are combined with others like antihistamines?

Question 43

Besides increased heart rate and dilation of pupils, what is another desired outcome related to GI motility from anticholinergic use?

Question 44

Atropine is used for bradyarrhythmias, and ipratropium is used for bronchospasm. What is the listed use for benztropine?

Question 45

What term describes the general class of nerve fibers where antimuscarinics like atropine exert their inhibitory effects?

Question 46

Decreased cardiac output is a potential nursing diagnosis for patients on anticholinergics and is related to what aspect of the drug's use?

Question 47

When managing dry mouth from anticholinergics, what is a key element of the recommended oral hygiene?

Question 48

Why is it important to auscultate for bowel sounds in a patient taking anticholinergics?

Question 49

Anticholinergics function by inhibiting which neurotransmitter?

Question 50

Oral anticholinergics like glycopyrrolate are administered 30 minutes before meals. When should the scopolamine patch be applied for travel?