What is the chapter’s main caution about using historical correlations and volatilities for asset-class inputs?

Correct answer: Historical estimates can be unstable over time and sample-period dependent, so inputs may change and move the efficient frontier.

Explanation

Capital-market input estimates depend on sample period and can change, moving the efficient frontier; planners should be cautious and consider scenarios (see Section: Strategic Asset Allocation).

Other questions

Question 1

Which of the following is the primary purpose of an Investment Policy Statement (IPS)?

Question 2

A client states she requires a 6 percent nominal annual return to meet her goals, and she wants no more than a 10 percent chance of losing more than 8 percent in any 12-month period. How should these objectives be classified in the IPS?

Question 3

Which two components combine to form an investor’s overall risk tolerance according to the chapter?

Question 4

An adviser uses a five-question psychometric scale similar to the chapter’s example and the client’s summed score is high. That score primarily informs which element of the IPS?

Question 5

Which IPS constraint would be most relevant for an investor who expects a large tuition payment in two years?

Question 6

What is the most direct effect of tax status on portfolio construction for a taxable investor versus a tax-exempt pension fund?

Question 7

Which of these asset-class specifications would give the most control over fixed-income exposures in an SAA?

Question 8

When constructing capital market expectations to build an SAA, which three inputs are commonly quantified?

Question 9

In mean-variance portfolio theory, the efficient frontier represents portfolios that:

Question 10

An investor’s SAA is derived by finding the point of tangency between which two constructs?

Question 11

Which of the following describes tactical asset allocation (TAA)?

Question 12

A fund has a policy corridor of +/- 2% around a 30% equity policy weight. If market movement increases the equity weight to 32.4%, what should the rebalancing policy indicate?

Question 13

In risk budgeting, what is meant by the term 'risk budget'?

Question 14

Which of the following is NOT a common ESG investment approach listed in the chapter?

Question 15

Which IPS appendix is commonly used to state the long-term policy portfolio and how to maintain it?

Question 16

If an institutional investor's liabilities are well-known and long-dated, which investment approach does the chapter say may be appropriate?

Question 17

Which metric does the chapter identify as a relative risk measure that is widely used when an investor expects to hold a diversified portfolio?

Question 18

An investor requires a portfolio that will likely generate a steady income for the next 10 years and has low risk tolerance. Which asset allocation from the chapter's examples is most consistent?

Question 19

Which of the following is the most likely reason an endowment would have a significant allocation to alternative assets (private equity, hedge funds, real assets)?

Question 20

If an asset-class benchmark excludes certain industries due to ESG screening, what important IPS implementation change does the chapter recommend?

Question 21

Which statement best reflects the chapter’s guidance on re-evaluating the IPS?

Question 22

Which of the following choices best captures the chapter’s view on bottom-up vs top-down security analysis?

Question 23

A university endowment has a 5.25% target spending rate with a smoothing rule combining prior year spending and long-term target. This policy example in the chapter is intended to illustrate:

Question 24

Which of the following best describes the trade-off when using negative screening for ESG (excluding certain industries)?

Question 25

Which approach to portfolio construction is most likely to cause higher portfolio turnover and more capital gains distributions in taxable accounts?

Question 26

If a client expresses ethical concerns that preclude investing in tobacco and gambling businesses, which IPS element should document that preference?

Question 27

Which of the following statements regarding closed-end vs open-end funds is consistent with the chapter?

Question 28

Which of the following is most consistent with the chapter’s discussion of a top-down analysis?

Question 29

A charity begins the year with policy weights and after six months equities have outperformed causing drift. If the charity chooses not to rebalance and instead increases equities to exploit momentum, the chapter would classify that action as:

Question 31

Which of the following best reflects the chapter’s guidance on manager selection and implementation after the SAA is set?

Question 32

An investor who is 40 years away from retirement and highly risk-tolerant is most likely to:

Question 33

When a client’s portfolio drifts from policy weights due to market movements, the chapter suggests that rebalancing helps to:

Question 34

Which investor type listed in the chapter is most likely to have the greatest need for liquidity?

Question 35

Which of the following is a potential downside of delegating stewardship and proxy voting entirely to an external manager without client input as discussed in the chapter?

Question 36

Which of the following best characterizes a lifecycle or target-date fund discussed in the chapter?

Question 37

If an IPS states the client wants 95% confidence that 12-month losses will not exceed 4%, which risk metric does the chapter suggest is most appropriate to express this objective?

Question 38

Which of the following is a sensible governance response, as the chapter recommends, if a manager finds the portfolio's asset-class weights have drifted outside the agreed corridor?

Question 39

Why might a pension plan with many current retirees place more emphasis on income and liquidity than a growing DB plan, according to the chapter?

Question 40

Which of the following best explains why portfolio managers document an SAA in the IPS rather than leave it implicit?

Question 41

Which of the following is the best description of "drift" in portfolio management as used in the chapter?

Question 42

How does the chapter recommend dealing with the additional complexity introduced by ESG exclusions when estimating asset-class expectations?

Question 43

An investor sets an IPS objective to 'achieve returns within +/- 4% of the index 95% of the time.' Which measure would best operationalize monitoring this objective?

Question 44

Which of the following is a correct implication of documenting an IPS for a manager-client relationship as emphasized in the chapter?

Question 45

Why does the chapter caution that peer-group or 'top quartile' return objectives can be problematic?

Question 46

Which of the following is the chapter’s recommended first step when an adviser begins fact-finding for an IPS?

Question 47

Which of the following best describes the role of scenario analysis in SAA and risk management as per the chapter?

Question 48

A Swiss individual with significant home-country holdings prefers to invest locally because she believes she has informational advantages and likes investing in local businesses. The chapter would classify this inclination as an example of:

Question 49

Which of the following is the chapter’s recommended treatment when an investor’s ability to take risk (high wealth, long horizon) conflicts with a low willingness to take risk?

Question 50

Which best practice does the chapter recommend for managing concentrations in employer stock within an employee’s retirement account?