Learning Module 2 Code of Ethics and Standards of Professional Conduct

50 questions available

Overview, Enforcement, and Code5 min
This learning module explains the structure, purpose, and enforcement of the CFA Institute Code of Ethics and Standards of Professional Conduct and gives practical guidance for applying Standards I–VII. The Code contains aspirational principles requiring members and candidates to act with integrity, competence, diligence, respect, and in the interests of clients and the public, to maintain and improve their professional competence, and to promote market integrity for society's benefit. The Standards are practical rules investors and professionals must follow. The Professional Conduct Program (PCP) enforces the Code and Standards, investigates complaints from self-disclosures, written complaints, media or regulatory sources, proctor reports, and monitoring. Investigations may lead to no action, a cautionary letter, or disciplinary proceedings before Disciplinary Review Committee (DRC) panels; sanctions range from censure to suspension or revocation of the CFA designation.

Key Points

  • Code contains aspirational principles; Standards are enforceable conduct rules
  • Professional Conduct Program (PCP) investigates and refers matters to DRC
  • Sanctions include censure, suspension, revocation of designation
Standards I and Competence5 min
The Handbook and Standards evolve; 2023 revisions added Standard I(E) Competence, revised Standard V(B) to require disclosure of nature of services and costs to clients, and modified Standard VI(A) to Require Avoid or Disclose Conflicts. Standard I (Professionalism) requires knowledge of the law, independence and objectivity, not making misrepresentations, avoiding misconduct, and maintaining competence. Guidance covers applying the highest applicable law, dissociation from violations, implementing compliance procedures, firewalls, record keeping, and continuous professional development.

Key Points

  • 2023 revisions: new Competence standard; V(B) and VI(A) updates
  • Standard I: Know the law, maintain independence, avoid misrepresentation and misconduct
  • Dissociate from violations; consult legal/compliance and document actions
Market Integrity: II(A) and II(B)5 min
Standard II (Integrity of Capital Markets) contains II(A) Material Nonpublic Information and II(B) Market Manipulation. II(A) prohibits acting on material nonpublic information and inducing others to trade on such information; materiality depends on whether information would significantly alter the total mix of available information and affect price. Nonpublic means not effectively disseminated to the marketplace. Mosaic theory allows analysts to combine public and nonmaterial nonpublic information to form opinions. Firms should adopt firewalls, restricted and watch lists, record personal trading, adopt disclosure procedures, and achieve public dissemination when appropriate. II(B) forbids disseminating false or misleading information and transaction-based manipulation (pump-and-dump, wash trades, spoofing or creating artificial volumes or prices). Firms should detect and prevent manipulation and disclose launch arrangements transparently.

Key Points

  • Material nonpublic information cannot be used to trade or cause trades
  • Mosaic theory permits combining public and nonmaterial nonpublic info
  • Market manipulation includes false information and transactional schemes
Duties to Clients: III(A)–III(E)6 min
Standard III (Duties to Clients) includes III(A) Loyalty, Prudence, and Care, III(B) Fair Dealing, III(C) Suitability, III(D) Performance Presentation, and III(E) Preservation of Confidentiality. III(A) requires client interests be placed ahead of employer and personal interests and that members act with reasonable care and prudent judgment. Identify the true client (beneficiaries), follow governing documents, and avoid conflicts of interest. III(B) requires fair treatment in recommendation dissemination and trade allocation; members should avoid selective disclosure and adopt allocation procedures, simultaneous dissemination, and documented trade practices. III(C) requires reasonable inquiry into client financial situation, risk tolerance, objectives, constraints, and ongoing review; suitability must consider total portfolio, diversification, liquidity, tax, and time horizon. III(D) requires performance information to be fair, accurate, and complete; avoid cherry-picking, inappropriate benchmarks, inconsistent valuation practices, and clearly disclose methodologies and errors. III(E) requires confidentiality of client information unless disclosure is required by law, the client permits, or the information concerns illegal activity.

Key Points

  • Client interests first; fiduciary duties may be imposed by law
  • Fair dealing: simultaneous dissemination and fair allocation policies
  • Suitability requires IPS and periodic review; performance must be accurate
Standards IV–VII, Procedures, and Ethical Frameworks5 min
Standard IV (Duties to Employers) requires loyalty, restrictions on accepting outside compensation without written consent, and responsibilities of supervisors to make reasonable efforts to ensure supervised persons comply with laws and Code and Standards. Standard V (Investment Analysis, Recommendations, and Actions) requires diligence and reasonable basis for recommendations, adequate record retention, and communication requirements including disclosing nature of services, costs to clients, investment process, and significant limitations and risks. Standard VI (Conflicts of Interest) requires avoiding or making full and fair disclosure of matters impairing independence and objectivity, ensuring client and employer transactions receive priority over personal trades, and disclosing referral fees. Standard VII (Responsibilities as a CFA Institute Member or Candidate) prohibits conduct that compromises CFA Institute or its programs and restricts misrepresentation of CFA Institute membership, the CFA designation, and candidacy status. Recommended firm procedures: codes of ethics, compliance training, reporting protocols, supervisory review, documentation, policies for gifts and travel, proxy voting, trade allocation, record retention, and periodic IPS updates. Ethical decision-making framework: Identify, Consider, Decide and Act, Reflect.

Key Points

  • IV–VII cover employer duties, research/actions diligence, conflicts, and CFA responsibilities
  • Firms should implement detailed procedures, training, and oversight
  • Use an ethical decision-making framework to navigate complex situations

Questions

Question 1

Which is the primary purpose of the CFA Institute Professional Conduct Program (PCP)?

View answer and explanation
Question 2

A member receives an e-mail from a regulator reporting possible misconduct by a colleague. According to the Handbook guidance, what should the member do first?

View answer and explanation
Question 3

Which of the following best describes the relationship between the Code of Ethics and the Standards of Professional Conduct?

View answer and explanation
Question 4

Which new standard was added in the 2023 revisions to the Code and Standards?

View answer and explanation
Question 5

Under Standard I(A), when applicable law and the Code and Standards differ, a member must:

View answer and explanation
Question 6

Which of the following most likely constitutes material nonpublic information under Standard II(A)?

View answer and explanation
Question 7

Under II(A), which practice is permissible for an analyst using the mosaic approach?

View answer and explanation
Question 8

Which of the following actions best demonstrates compliance with Standard I(B) Independence and Objectivity?

View answer and explanation
Question 9

Which of the following is a recommended firewall element to prevent misuse of material nonpublic information?

View answer and explanation
Question 10

Which behavior most likely violates Standard II(B) Market Manipulation?

View answer and explanation
Question 11

A portfolio manager receives a client instruction to buy a speculative cryptocurrency product that conflicts with the client’s conservative IPS. What is the most appropriate immediate action?

View answer and explanation
Question 12

Which action best meets the disclosure requirement under revised Standard V(B) Communication with Clients and Prospective Clients?

View answer and explanation
Question 13

Which practice helps ensure fair dealing under Standard III(B) when allocating shares of an oversubscribed IPO among client accounts?

View answer and explanation
Question 14

Which of these is required by Standard III(D) Performance Presentation?

View answer and explanation
Question 15

A research analyst copies substantial material from another firm’s report into their firm’s published report without attribution. Which Standard is most directly violated?

View answer and explanation
Question 16

Which procedure is recommended to help supervisors meet their obligations under Standard IV(C) Responsibilities of Supervisors?

View answer and explanation
Question 17

Under Standard VI(A) Avoid or Disclose Conflicts, what is required when a conflict cannot reasonably be avoided?

View answer and explanation
Question 18

Which of the following best exemplifies a violation of Standard V(A) Diligence and Reasonable Basis?

View answer and explanation
Question 19

A member receives confidential quarterly sales figures from a supplier in confidence; the information is material. Under Standard II(A), which action is permitted?

View answer and explanation
Question 20

Which statement best reflects the meaning of 'best execution' in the context of Standard III(A) Loyalty, Prudence, and Care?

View answer and explanation
Question 21

An adviser claims in a brochure that their composite returned 20% annually for the past five years, but this excludes accounts that withdrew during poor years. Which Standard is implicated?

View answer and explanation
Question 22

Which of the following is consistent with Standard I(E) Competence when a member's role changes to include ESG analysis?

View answer and explanation
Question 23

Which is an appropriate firm practice to support Standard V(C) Record Retention?

View answer and explanation
Question 24

Under Standard VI(B) Priority of Transactions, which trade must be filled first?

View answer and explanation
Question 25

Which action best complies with Standard III(E) Preservation of Confidentiality?

View answer and explanation
Question 26

Which of the following is a recommended firm policy to support Standard I(B) independence of research?

View answer and explanation
Question 27

A member asks compliance whether they may accept a modest client gift worth EUR 50. Best practice under Standard I(B) is to:

View answer and explanation
Question 28

Which of the following is most consistent with ethical use of expert networks under Standard II(A)?

View answer and explanation
Question 29

A manager wishes to advertise a fund’s 10-year track record but wants to use a peer group index that is not comparable. Under Standard III(D) the manager should:

View answer and explanation
Question 30

Which action best demonstrates compliance with Standard VII(B) Reference to CFA Institute and the CFA designation?

View answer and explanation
Question 31

An analyst discovers an error in a previously distributed performance report that materially inflates returns. According to the Handbook, the analyst should:

View answer and explanation
Question 32

Which of the following best describes the duty of loyalty under Standard III(A)?

View answer and explanation
Question 33

Which firm-level practice most directly promotes ethical culture as described in the module conclusion?

View answer and explanation
Question 34

Under Standard I(C) Misrepresentation, which social media behavior is most likely a violation?

View answer and explanation
Question 35

Which of the following is consistent with Standard IV(B) Additional Compensation Arrangements?

View answer and explanation
Question 36

Which best practice helps ensure suitability for retail clients under Standard III(C)?

View answer and explanation
Question 37

Which of the following disclosures is required under Standard VI(C) Referral Fees?

View answer and explanation
Question 38

Which practice helps a firm comply with Standard III(B) when issuing investment recommendations?

View answer and explanation
Question 39

An adviser tells a prospective client only the services that benefit the adviser’s firm. Under Standard V(B), what is missing?

View answer and explanation
Question 40

Which of the following actions would be a violation of Standard I(D) Misconduct?

View answer and explanation
Question 41

Which of the following best exemplifies a firm’s proxy voting responsibility discussed under Standard III(A)?

View answer and explanation
Question 42

Which practice is inconsistent with the concept of an ethical decision-making framework recommended in the module?

View answer and explanation
Question 43

A member learns that a colleague has been selectively sharing draft research with favored clients before public release. Which Standards are implicated and what immediate step should the member take?

View answer and explanation
Question 44

Which of the following is an appropriate response if a member discovers the firm is presenting an inaccurate performance composite that overstates returns?

View answer and explanation
Question 45

Which of these best captures the FCA Institute's reason for emphasizing professions and codes of ethics in investment management?

View answer and explanation
Question 46

Which of the following steps is part of the ethical decision-making framework outlined in the Handbook?

View answer and explanation
Question 47

Which scenario most clearly requires dissociation under Standard I(A)?

View answer and explanation
Question 48

Which of the following reflects best practice for handling firm-sponsored educational trips by issuers under Standard I(B)?

View answer and explanation
Question 49

Under Standard V(B), which of these must be disclosed when communicating investment process to clients?

View answer and explanation
Question 50

Which behavior exemplifies fulfilling the Standard I(E) Competence obligation over time?

View answer and explanation